Question and answer details | |
| Abdullah | |
| 2012/05/13 | |
| Assalamu Alaykum! We (the Muslims) were discussing various topics with Christians on an Islamic discussion forum. The Christians made certain comments, which I'd like you to respond to. Here is what they said: “All food was lawful to the Children of Israel, except what Israel Made unlawful for itself, before the Law (of Moses) was revealed....Say: "Bring ye the Law and study it, if ye be men of truth." Surah 3 Verse 93The Christians said: “The problem is that the ayah is saying to follow the Torah. However, Muslims say that the Torah has been corrupted and lost. How could the Jews study the Torah unless the book they had at Muhammad's time is the Book from Moses' time?”If thou wert in doubt as to what We have revealed unto thee, then ask those who have been reading the Book from before thee: the Truth hath indeed come to thee from thy Lord: so be in no wise of those in doubt. Surah 10 Verse 94The Christians said: “First, this ayah says to ask the People of the Book, not merely the upright people. But if Muslims asked even the good Christians, they would say Jesus died and rose again.” And dispute ye not with the People of the Book, except with means better (than mere disputation), unless it be with those of them who inflict wrong (and injury): but say, "We believe in the revelation which has come down to us and in that which came down to you; Our God and your God is one; and it is to Him we bow (in Islam)." Surah 29 Verse 46The Christians said: “This says to believe not only in the revelation come Abraham, Moses, and Jesus but also to 7th century Christians, and to all Christians! The Christians are trying their best to prove that the Qur'an does not say the Torah and the Bible have been corrupted. They're also trying their best to prove that the Qur'an says Muslims should follow the Torah and the Bible. I would appreciate it if you kindly respond to the comments of the Christians and teach all of us the tafseer of each ayah that was mentioned, and kindly clear the misconceptions and misunderstandings of the Christians with regards to each ayah that was mentioned. Wassalamu Alaykum | |
| Shahul Hameed | |
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Answer
Dear Brother Abdullah, Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullah, thank you very much for your mail.
The Qur’anic position about the previous scriptures is clarified in the following verse: This verse means that the Qur’an confirms the truth that remains in the former scriptures. The Arabic word translated, “Watcher over” is Muhaymin, which clearly indicates that the Qur’an confirms only the truth in the previous books. That the keepers of the previous books had distorted them is made clear in another verse: From these two verses, it is quite clear that the Qur’an does not support the Christian claim that the Torah and the Bible remain uncorrupted all through history. What is more, this is not a claim they can maintain in the light of their own scripture: “How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the Lord is with us'? But behold, the lying pen of the scribes has made it into a lie” (Jeremiah 8:8, quoted from the New American Standard Bible). Here the Prophet Jeremiah is scolding the Israelites that their corrupt scribes have made the Law of the Lord (that is the Torah) into a lie by their ‘lying pen’ (that is the pen they used to change the verses). This proof in the Book, the People of the Book are carrying, clearly establishes that their Book has been corrupted by their own scribes. We have good evidence in the Gospels themselves that Jesus was using the original Bible for his preaching. He used to refer to it as The Gospel of the Kingdom: “And Jesus went about all Galilee, teaching in their synagogues, and preaching the gospel of the kingdom, and healing all manner of sickness and all manner of disease among the people.” (Matthew 4: 23) Here it is said that Jesus preached the Gospel of the Kingdom. Ask those Christian disputants whether Jesus was preaching one of the four Canonical gospels included in the Bible in 325 C.E, written not in Jesus’ own Aramaic language, but in the western language of Greek, at least thirty years after his alleged crucifixion. It is so obvious that no Christian scholar, worth his salt, can deny the fact that the present gospels contain the words of God, the words of Jesus and the words of the writer. That means that they are not fully God’s word. The Islamic belief is also the same. Now let us turn specifically to the Qur’anic verses you quoted: First, Second,
We must understand that these verses were originally addressed to the Prophet and his contemporaries. They had no means of knowing many of the ideas, which were being revealed to them by God. This is because there were so many things new to them, particularly about Jews and Christians, which were already really confusing to those polytheists or ex-polytheists of Makkah and Madinah. I believe (Allah knows best), it is to these people that the verses are primarily addressed. Useful Links: How and Why Scriptures Got Distorted Islam’s Message and Earlier Scriptures: Any Relation? |
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